FIN 350 Week 9 Quiz – Strayer
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Quiz
8 Chapter 18 and 19
Bank
Regulation
1. Deposit
insurance has a limit of:
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a.
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$10,000.
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b.
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$25,000.
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c.
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$100,000.
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d.
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$250,000.
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2. The
opening of a commercial bank in the United States
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a.
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does not require a charter.
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b.
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always requires a charter from a state government.
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c.
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always requires a charter from the federal
government.
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d.
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requires a charter from a state or the federal
government.
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e.
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requires a charter from both the state and federal
government.
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3. Commercial
banks that are not members of the Federal Reserve System ____ borrow from the
Fed, and ____ subject to the Fed's reserve requirements.
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a.
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may; are
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b.
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may; are not
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c.
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may not; are not
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d.
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may not; are
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4. National
banks are regulated by ____, and state banks are regulated by ____.
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a.
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the Comptroller of the Currency; their state
agency
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b.
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the Comptroller of the Currency; the Comptroller
of the Currency
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c.
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their state agency; their state agency
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d.
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their state agency; the Comptroller of the
Currency
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5. All
Fed member banks must hold
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a.
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private insurance on deposits.
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b.
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FDIC insurance on deposits.
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c.
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both FDIC and private insurance on deposits.
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d.
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none of the above
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6. Commercial
banks ____ restricted to a maximum percentage of their capital to loan to a
single customer, and ____ allowed to use borrowed or deposited funds to
purchase common stock.
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a.
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are; are
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b.
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are; are not
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c.
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are not; are
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d.
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are not; are not
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7. Banks
commonly use depositor funds to invest in stocks.
a.
True
b.
False
8. An
"off-balance-sheet commitment" that provides the bank's guarantee on
the financial obligations of a borrower to a specific party is a
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a.
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standby letter of credit.
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b.
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federal funds agreement.
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c.
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repurchase agreement.
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d.
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discount window agreement.
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9. The
Depository Institutions Deregulation and Monetary Control Act of 1980 allowed
banks to set their own
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a.
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reserve requirements.
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b.
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capital ratios.
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c.
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interest rates on savings deposits.
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d.
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corporate loan interest rates.
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10. The
Glass-Steagall Act of 1933 prevented
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a.
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any firm that accepts deposits from underwriting
stocks and bonds of corporations.
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b.
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any firm that accepts deposits from underwriting
general obligation bonds of states and municipalities.
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c.
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any firm that accepts deposits from holding any
corporate bonds in its asset portfolio.
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d.
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state-chartered banks from offering commercial
loans.
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11. Which
of the following is not a main deregulatory provision of Depository Institutions
Deregulation and Monetary Control Act of 1980?
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a.
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phase-out of deposit rate ceilings
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b.
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allowance of checkable deposits for all depository
institutions
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c.
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new lending flexibility of depository institutions
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d.
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allowance of interstate banking for depository
institutions in most states
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12. The
Financial Reform Act was intended to:
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a.
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prevent another credit crisis.
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b.
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reduce capital ratios.
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c.
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impose interest rate ceilings on deposits.
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d.
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prevent banks from offering securities services.
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13. The
Garn-St. Germain Act of 1982
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a.
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permitted depository institutions to offer money
market deposit accounts.
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b.
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prevented depository institutions from acquiring
problem institutions across geographical boundaries.
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c.
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required the Fed to explicitly charge depository
institutions for its services.
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d.
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allowed the Fed to provide check clearing to
depository institutions at no charge.
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14. Which
of the following is not a specific criterion the FDIC uses to monitor banks?
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a.
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capital adequacy
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b.
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dollar value of fixed assets
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c.
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asset quality
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d.
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earnings
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e.
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sensitivity to financial market conditions
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15. The
potential risk that financial problems can spread through financial
institutions and the financial system is referred to as:
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a.
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systemic
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b.
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systematic
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c.
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unsystematic
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d.
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market
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16. The
Basel framework recommends capital requirements in proportion to:
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a.
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mortgages
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b.
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commercial paper
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c.
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liabilities
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d.
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risk-weighted assets
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17. The
Basel Accord
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a.
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forces banks with greater risk to maintain more
deposits.
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b.
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forces banks with greater risk to maintain more
capital.
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c.
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forces banks with greater risk to maintain less
capital.
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d.
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none of the above
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18. In
general, a bank defines its value-at-risk as the estimated potential loss from
its traditional businesses that could result from adverse movements in market
prices.
a.
True
b.
False
19. Which
of the following statements is incorrect?
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a.
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The validity of a bank's estimated VAR is assessed
with backtests in which the actual daily trading gains or losses are compared
to the estimated VAR over a particular period.
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b.
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Some banks supplement the VAR estimate with stress
tests.
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c.
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In general, the VAR model does not lend itself to
determine capital requirements.
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d.
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All of the statements above are correct.
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20. Which
of the following is an "off-balance-sheet commitment?"
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a.
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long-term debt
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b.
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additional paid-in capital
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c.
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notes payable
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d.
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guarantees backing commercial paper issued by
firms
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21. The
liquidity component of the CAMELS rating refers to
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a.
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regulators' concern about how a bank's earnings
would change if economic conditions change.
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b.
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how well the bank's management would detect its
own financial problems.
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c.
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a bank's sensitivity to financial market
conditions.
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d.
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monitoring the type of loans that are given, the
bank's process for deciding whether to provide loans, and the credit rating
of debt securities that it purchases.
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e.
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excessive borrowing by banks from outside sources,
such as the discount window.
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22. Which
of the following is not a corrective action taken by regulators when a bank is
identified as a problem bank?
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a.
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Regulators may examine such banks frequently and
thoroughly.
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b.
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Regulators may request that a bank boost its
capital level or delay its plans to expand.
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c.
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Regulators can require that additional financial
information be periodically updated to allow continued monitoring.
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d.
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Regulators have the authority to take legal action
against a problem bank if the bank does not comply with their suggested
remedies.
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e.
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All of the above are possible corrective actions
taken by bank regulators.
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23. The
fee banks pay to the FDIC for deposit insurance is now
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a.
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a fixed dollar amount for all banks.
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b.
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a fixed percentage of the bank's deposit level for
all banks.
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c.
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a fixed percentage of the bank's loan volume for
all banks.
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d.
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based on the risk of the bank.
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24. Generally,
the failure of small banks
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a.
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causes more widespread concern about the safety of
the banking system than the failure of large banks.
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b.
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causes equal concern about the safety of the
banking system as the failure of large banks.
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c.
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causes less concern about the safety of the
banking system than the failure of large banks.
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d.
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Either A or B can be true, depending on the type
of business cycle that exists while the failures occur.
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25. The
Sarbanes-Oxley Act was enacted to make corporate managers, board members, and
auditors more accountable for the accuracy of the financial statements that
their respective firms provide.
a.
True
b.
False
26. Bank
A has a 10 percent capital ratio and uses a significant proportion of its
assets to invest in very highly-rated bonds. Bank B has an 12 percent capital
ratio and uses a significant proportion of its assets to invest in highly
leveraged transactions. How would Bank A rate versus Bank B using the capital
and asset quality criteria?
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a.
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Bank A is perceived as safer by both criteria.
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b.
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Bank B is perceived as safer by both criteria.
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c.
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Bank A is perceived as safer according to capital,
but more risky according to asset quality.
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d.
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Bank B is perceived as safer according to capital,
but more risky according to asset quality.
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27. The
key reason for regulatory examinations (such as CAMELS ratings) is to
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a.
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rate past performance.
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b.
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detect problems of a bank in time to correct them.
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c.
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check for embezzlement.
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d.
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monitor reserve requirements.
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